Division by zero

Other scientific, philosophical, mathematical etc. topics go here.

Postby PWrong » Fri Feb 10, 2006 3:57 pm

Then we have only the both possibilites a=0 or a=1. And I see no way to decide algebraicly which value is the "right".

Not quite. To prove that 0 and 1 are the only possibilities, you have to prove that x^y approaches 0 or 1, along every possible path.

Here's a counterexample. Let y = -1/ln(x)
Then as x approaches 0+, y approaches 0+
It turns out that the limit of x^y is 1/e. I don't know how mathematica worked that one out, I've forgotten all the limit laws. But it proves that it's possible that 0^0 = 1/e

Edit: Here's a more general counterexample.

Let (x,y) approach (0,0) along the path y = ln(a) / ln(x), for any a you choose. Then the limit of x^y is a.
Last edited by PWrong on Fri Feb 10, 2006 4:06 pm, edited 1 time in total.
User avatar
PWrong
Pentonian
 
Posts: 1599
Joined: Fri Jan 30, 2004 8:21 am
Location: Perth, Australia

Postby bo198214 » Fri Feb 10, 2006 4:01 pm

PWrong, I said:

bo198214 wrote:But even if we let out the reals and convergence, but only consider natural numbered exponent
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby bo198214 » Fri Feb 10, 2006 4:13 pm

PWrong wrote: I don't know how mathematica worked that one out,


x^y=e^(y*ln(x))=e^((-1/ln(x))*ln(x))=1/e :o *nudge*
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby PWrong » Fri Feb 10, 2006 5:04 pm

Lol, it's so obvious now. Oh well, it's late...

But even if we let out the reals and convergence, but only consider natural numbered exponent

Why not consider the positive reals?
User avatar
PWrong
Pentonian
 
Posts: 1599
Joined: Fri Jan 30, 2004 8:21 am
Location: Perth, Australia

Postby wendy » Sat Feb 11, 2006 9:01 am

Wendy! I thought you were a mathematician!


No, not really.

We know that 0^m = 0 and we notice that this is true for all m, hence 0^0=0, QED.
Would *you* accept such a "proof"?


This is only true for m>0. It certianly is not true for m<0 (ie 0^-1 is not zero).

The particular proof i gave is fundementally more informative, since it relies on zero being a counting number, and that any equation or number is intrinsically unstable unless 0^0 =1.
The dream you dream alone is only a dream
the dream we dream together is reality.

\ ( \(\LaTeX\ \) \ ) [no spaces] at https://greasyfork.org/en/users/188714-wendy-krieger
User avatar
wendy
Pentonian
 
Posts: 2031
Joined: Tue Jan 18, 2005 12:42 pm
Location: Brisbane, Australia

Postby bo198214 » Sat Feb 11, 2006 12:17 pm

wendy wrote:
Wendy! I thought you were a mathematician!


No, not really.

What are you then?

relies on zero being a counting number

Sorry I dont know what you mean by "counting number" and so I dont see where your "proof" uses this consideration.

any equation or number is intrinsically unstable unless 0^0 =1.

I wonder a bit, that you now argumenting with stability, where you completely ignored several instability proofs before.

Though its of course true, that if we admit only natural numbered exponents (including 0) then x<sub>n</sub>^y<sub>n</sub> -> 1 for every x<sub>n</sub> -> 0 and every y<sub>n</sub> -> 0 (x<sub>n</sub>!=0), so 0^0=1 fits as the only possibility. On the other hand if we only allow natural numbered bases (including 0) then always x<sub>n</sub>^y<sub>n</sub> -> 0.

And maybe it seems more basic to regard natural numbered exponents. But indeed the group of mathematicians that use the 0^0=1 convention are the measure theorist, or all people that have to do with binomial coefficents. And this has good reason. The equation
(x+y)^n=sum_i=0^n (n over i) x^(n-i) y^i
should remain valid for x=0 or y=0. For example:
(x+0)^2= (2 over 0) x^2 0^0 + (2 over 1) x^1 0^1 + (2 over 2) x^0 0^2 = x^2 0^0
If we had defined fac(0):=0 and 0^0:=0 then the term (2 over 0) x^2 0^0 would be undefined.

So summarizing I would say: For natural numbered exponents the only possible (and indeed possible) value is 0^0=1. When only looking from the algebraic standpoint the definition 0^0=1 has the advantage over the definition 0^0=0, that more terms become defined because we have not to deal with division by 0.
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby wendy » Sun Feb 12, 2006 9:54 am

I suppose, I am an incorriagable hacker.

A counting number is one one uses to count, eg "one, two, three". One can have one thing or two things or three things, but not two and a half, or whatever. The count of things absent is zero. Is that hard.

From this, we show that 5*m*m contains two segments *m, and 5*m contains one segment *m, and 5 contains none. If 0^0 is really anything other than 1, then the segment 5 contains no segments of *0, and therefore a factor 0^0. If 0^0 = 1.4, then 5 = 7. Since this is not the case, then 0^0 must equal 1.

QED.

One might also note that there are several kinds of instablity. For example, under certain conditions, the Bohr atom is unstable, in that there is nothing preventing the orbits decaying, and the electron falling into the nucleus. But this is stablised by a later quantum factor. So it is reasonable to ignore the instability of the orbits produced by a radiant 1/x3 field, for this reason. Some other magic may keep the planets in check.

On the other hand, the instability here is intrinsic to the formula. You can not have 0^0 as anything other than 1, nor 0*0 as 0, because this would imply that the sum() and product() [over empty lists] could be anything other than the identities of these actions, because it would mean one could never make 5 = sum(5), because the existance of potential empty elements could disrupt this very thing, ie 5 = sum(5) = sum(5)+sum() = sum(5)+2 = 7.
The dream you dream alone is only a dream
the dream we dream together is reality.

\ ( \(\LaTeX\ \) \ ) [no spaces] at https://greasyfork.org/en/users/188714-wendy-krieger
User avatar
wendy
Pentonian
 
Posts: 2031
Joined: Tue Jan 18, 2005 12:42 pm
Location: Brisbane, Australia

Postby bo198214 » Sun Feb 12, 2006 1:48 pm

PWrong wrote:There are easier ways to do this. Just try to take the limit of x^y as (x,y) approaches (0,0). You get different answers on different paths. This proves, by definition, that the limit does not exist.


Yes but the point was not whether the limit exists but if it is definable.
Originally I wanted to shed some light on the defineability issue by the long explanations, but it seems it was not very successful. So I give a small survey on definability.

Can we define anything and have to wait until some contradictions are found?
No, but everytime we make a definition we have to show that it is well defined.
Thatswhy I distinguish between natural, rational and real numbers. Though they are embeddable (in that order) not necessarily the operations on it can always be extended to the next number system (though addition and multiplication do).

The natural numbers N (I regard them including 0 here) are defined by the peano axioms, that means I define by induction. And we can arbitrarily choose our induction start (without having to deal with definability). So for example:
m^0=1 for every m
m^(n+1)=m*m^n
But we could also have defined the induction start as
m^0=1 for m>0 and 0^0=0
without changing the other values of x^y.
Every other induction start of 0^0 would change some other values of x^y.

Then we define the integers by natural number paired with sign (except for 0).

Then we define the rational numbers Q by pairs of integer numbers (or signed pair of natural numbers) and the congruence relation a/b=c/d iff a*d=c*b. If I define for example (a/b)^k=a^k/b^k then for well-definition I have to show that it yields the same result for every c/d=a/b (proof left to the reader). Though usually one assumes a/b to be canceled and then only shows that (na)/(nb) yields the same result. If we would admit zero as denominator then 0/0 = a/b for all a,b because 0*b=0=a*0 and so Q would be trivial (and especially no extension of N).

Then we define the real numbers R as Cauchy sequences of rational numbers (the fine thing about Cauchy sequences is, that you dont need to know the limit) with the congruence relation that the difference of both Cauchy sequence tends to zero. So when we define something for real numbers for well-definition we have to prove that the result is again a Cauchy sequence and that for each congruent Cauchy sequences as arguments the results must be again congruent Cauchy sequences.

We can define ^ on RxN by induction (as above taking the multiplication on RxR). And have again that 0^0 can only be defined as 0 or 1 if the operation on the other values of RxN should be left unchanged.
We can define ^ on RxN by Cauchy sequences (taking ^ defined on QxN). Then 0^0 can be defined as 1 and 1 is the only value that it can take.

Extension of ^ to R<sub>+</sub>xR (where R<sub>+</sub> are the positive reals without 0) is a bit more complicated. We mainly do it by defining first ^ on R<sub>+</sub>xQ and then via Cauchy sequences of the exponents. It was already shown that the definition cannot extended to 0^0:=1 because it leads to different results for certain congruent Cauchy sequences of exponents. On the other hand 0^0=0 is that way definable if we extend the definition set to R<sub>+</sub>xR U {0}xR<sub>+</sub>. So the 0^0=0 is the only possible value in this defintion.

That are the (strict) results what regards definability. And I at least had expected from you, Wendy, that you (1.) confirm or deny the restriction on RxN (especially you only use natural numbered exponents in your considerations) and if you deny 1 then (2.) how you integrate the (multiple mentioned) undefinability arguments for RxR into your conviction.

Of course if there are any other definitions of ^ on the reals (which of course have to be equal to exp(y*ln(x)) on R<sub>+</sub>xR) there might come out different results what regards the value 0^0. So any ideas are welcome.
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby PWrong » Mon Feb 13, 2006 2:15 pm

Yes but the point was not whether the limit exists but if it is definable.

What do you mean by definable? The existence of a limit already has a definition. The "definability" of a limit is a concept you've just invented. Anyway, 0^0 is already defined as one of the seven indeterminate forms:
0/0, inf / inf, 0*inf, inf - inf, 0^0, inf^0, 1^inf
All of these depend on their context. You can find the value of any one of them, by converting it to a 0/0 form and using L'hopital's rule.

Imagine a wall that slopes up and down, so that it has a different height depending on where you are. There's no point "defining" the height of the wall to be the lowest point, or the highest point. Even if it's always 1 meter tall unless you approach it from a special angle, you still can't define it to be 1m tall, because sometimes it's not.
User avatar
PWrong
Pentonian
 
Posts: 1599
Joined: Fri Jan 30, 2004 8:21 am
Location: Perth, Australia

Postby moonlord » Mon Feb 13, 2006 6:10 pm

Guys, you are really ... incorigible :D.

From all your posts I gather that 0^0 is different from context to context, so why try define it generally when you need it to be different in different situations?

EDIT: Fixed smiley (:d is not a good one...)
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

Postby houserichichi » Mon Feb 13, 2006 9:19 pm

Pi doesn't have a pattern but that doesn't stop people from trying to find one...(though it should)
houserichichi
Tetronian
 
Posts: 590
Joined: Wed May 12, 2004 1:03 am
Location: Canada

Postby moonlord » Tue Feb 14, 2006 4:36 pm

'mathematical inertia' :D
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

Postby wendy » Wed Feb 15, 2006 6:58 am

0^0 is the same thing throughout.

The limit of 0^x as x-> 0 differs as x starts negative or positive, and is inconclusive.

The limit of a^b as a, b -> 0 is clear, since there is a sharp rise the more that b goes negative, and that a^b = 1 whenever b = 1.

So the limiting case is that

0^ positive = 0
0 ^ negative = infinite
0 ^ 0 = 1

In the other hand, it is more that there are people who are incapable of resolving a product of zero elements leaves whatever was before unchanged, and therefore must be the identity of product, and hence 1.

For such people, there is no way to prove that there are no elephants in the living room unless you first place and then remove an elephant.

W
The dream you dream alone is only a dream
the dream we dream together is reality.

\ ( \(\LaTeX\ \) \ ) [no spaces] at https://greasyfork.org/en/users/188714-wendy-krieger
User avatar
wendy
Pentonian
 
Posts: 2031
Joined: Tue Jan 18, 2005 12:42 pm
Location: Brisbane, Australia

Postby bo198214 » Fri Feb 17, 2006 9:28 am

PWrong wrote:What do you mean by definable?

Oh I thought I made it clear. Definable means that it is possible to define. I only stated that if you have equivalence classes as arguments and defining via representants then you must be sure thats independent of the chosen representant. (if you can not make this sure you cant define it.)

wendy wrote:The limit of a^b as a, b -> 0 is clear,

Yes, clearly undefined. And clearly you leave the path of mathematical truth when denying this. Even if the sequences dont change sign and dont assume 0, we have two pairs of sequences with different limits:
(1/n)^(1/n) -> 1
(1/n^n)^(1/n) -> 0
Your principle of 0 as a counting number is not applicable to the reals, 0 is not only a counting number but also a limit there, so you have to regard both cases.

In the other hand, it is more that there are people who are incapable of resolving a product of zero elements leaves whatever was before unchanged, and therefore must be the identity of product, and hence 1.

For such people, there is no way to prove that there are no elephants in the living room unless you first place and then remove an elephant.

By repeating statements they dont become more true (at least in mathematics).
For me mathematics is simply some agreed upon axioms, and either I can prove something or I cant (of course some things also have more comfort than others). And you can not prove that 0^0=1 in a mathematicly acceptable manner. And the interesting point is anyway that we dont need all these vague philosophical discussions about zero as a counting number. But we can prove that 0*x=0 for all real x, and x^0=1 for all real x!=0.

The only exception of x^0=1 is x=0, because division by 0 is not allowed. 0 is a multiplicative special element. With your principle of counting 0, you could also conclude
0 * (1/0) = 0 (identity of +) but of course 0/0=x/x=1 too.
So this principle leads again to a contradiction disregarding 0 as a special multiplicative element.
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby moonlord » Fri Feb 17, 2006 2:19 pm

I'm not going to argue on this thread. You guys keep using the same statements halfway through the discussion... :?
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

Postby bo198214 » Thu Mar 30, 2006 11:08 am

moonlord wrote:You guys keep using the same statements halfway through the discussion... :?

Oh, I thought I gave two new "conclusive" series. And and a new counterargument to zero as a counting number.
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby moonlord » Thu Mar 30, 2006 6:40 pm

Oh, I saw that (a few minutes afterwards) but was too lazy to edit. Interesting though, the reply came a month and a half later...
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

Postby bo198214 » Thu Mar 30, 2006 6:58 pm

moonlord wrote:Oh, I saw that (a few minutes afterwards) but was too lazy

You are not the only one ;)
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby papernuke » Sun Jul 09, 2006 2:42 am

yea acutually zero divided by zero would be an infinite number because there are infinite nothings in nothing...which dosent make sense
"Civilization is a race between education and catastrophe."
-H.G. Wells
papernuke
Tetronian
 
Posts: 612
Joined: Sat Jul 08, 2006 6:33 pm
Location: California, US of A

Postby houserichichi » Sun Jul 09, 2006 3:03 am

Zero has no multiplicative inverse by definition of multiplication so it cannot be divided out (in the reals).
houserichichi
Tetronian
 
Posts: 590
Joined: Wed May 12, 2004 1:03 am
Location: Canada

Postby moonlord » Sat Jul 15, 2006 10:07 am

Icon wrote:yea acutually zero divided by zero would be an infinite number because there are infinite nothings in nothing...which dosent make sense


0/0 can be anything because anything * 0 = 0. So it's undefined.
"God does not play dice." -- Albert Einstein, early 1900's.
"Not only does God play dice, but... he sometimes throws them where we cannot see them." -- Stephen Hawking, late 1900's.
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

Postby Keiji » Sat Jul 15, 2006 10:25 am

0/0 is the set of all real numbers, excluding infinity.
User avatar
Keiji
Administrator
 
Posts: 1985
Joined: Mon Nov 10, 2003 6:33 pm
Location: Torquay, England

Postby moonlord » Sat Jul 15, 2006 11:30 am

Infinity is not a member of R. The result of a expression between reals cannot be a set of reals. 0/0 is simply undefined, because it can be any of the reals. Not all of them. But I see your point. Just wanted to... make it more rigourous.
"God does not play dice." -- Albert Einstein, early 1900's.
"Not only does God play dice, but... he sometimes throws them where we cannot see them." -- Stephen Hawking, late 1900's.
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

Postby bo198214 » Sat Jul 15, 2006 11:41 am

because it can be any of the reals

0/0 can not be any real number.
It leads to contradictions as I already explained.
bo198214
Tetronian
 
Posts: 692
Joined: Tue Dec 06, 2005 11:03 pm
Location: Berlin - Germany

Postby moonlord » Sat Jul 15, 2006 11:57 am

OK, then why don't we all agree it's UNDEFINED!? :at wits end:
"God does not play dice." -- Albert Einstein, early 1900's.
"Not only does God play dice, but... he sometimes throws them where we cannot see them." -- Stephen Hawking, late 1900's.
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

Postby Keiji » Sat Jul 15, 2006 11:59 am

moonlord wrote:Infinity is not a member of R. The result of a expression between reals cannot be a set of reals. 0/0 is simply undefined, because it can be any of the reals. Not all of them. But I see your point. Just wanted to... make it more rigourous.


That's what I meant, 0/0 is in the set of real numbers. I said "excluding infinity" to clarify. ;)
User avatar
Keiji
Administrator
 
Posts: 1985
Joined: Mon Nov 10, 2003 6:33 pm
Location: Torquay, England

Postby aakashshah123 » Sat Aug 19, 2006 10:51 am

Any No Divided by zero is Infinite.
In Primary level teacher teaches thaat it is mot possible,
but as you reach to university level,
it is tought that Divide by Zero is always infinite.
Remember Algebric terms in Laplace transforms and z transforms.
We use this properties.
Travel To Portugal With http://www.portugaltravelers.com
Visit Hotel Troya while your Visit to Istanbul
http://www.hoteltroya.com
aakashshah123
Nullonian
 
Posts: 1
Joined: Sat Aug 19, 2006 10:38 am

Postby houserichichi » Sat Aug 19, 2006 1:36 pm

Division by zero tends to an infinity (which one depends on which direction you approach from) but it doesn't tend to any particular one over another. Same token, 0/0 is a worse case because it tends to neither. It's simply not defined at all over the reals, complex, or any field. Anything that claims division by zero doesn't form a field or an algebra (vector space defined over field with *) as fields are special cases of integral domains which are commutative rings with no zero divisors.

In the examples you provided we just happen across a convention that mathematicians and/or physicists use for completeness. Simply looking at the graph of 1/x in a neighbourhood of x=0 shows that it does not tend to a particular infinity, just that it diverges.
houserichichi
Tetronian
 
Posts: 590
Joined: Wed May 12, 2004 1:03 am
Location: Canada

Postby Keiji » Sat Aug 19, 2006 2:50 pm

By assuming that there is only one infinity and it is neither negative nor positive, then there is no problem with saying n/0 = infinity.
User avatar
Keiji
Administrator
 
Posts: 1985
Joined: Mon Nov 10, 2003 6:33 pm
Location: Torquay, England

Postby moonlord » Sat Aug 19, 2006 6:33 pm

That's the real projective line. However other properties are f***ed up. Check Wikipedia on the RP1.
"God does not play dice." -- Albert Einstein, early 1900's.
"Not only does God play dice, but... he sometimes throws them where we cannot see them." -- Stephen Hawking, late 1900's.
moonlord
Tetronian
 
Posts: 605
Joined: Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:01 pm
Location: CT, RO, CE EU

PreviousNext

Return to General

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 0 guests